Of course, the word order there is rather dictated by the rhyming pattern. The word "about" (in the 14th century pronounced "aboot", of course) is put where it is to rhyme with "route" which ends the previous line.So stant Custance, and looketh hire aboute.
Chaucer: "The Man of Law's Tale"
But there's nothing very odd about that word order, and I could probably find some examples where the word order sounds more natural than that in very old texts if I chose to look.
It's true that Dryden at some point went back through all his writings and changed them all, moving every "to" (and so forth) behind the "which" (or whatever) to which it related ... or which it was related to.
But why do that?
Apparently, Dryden did it because that would how things would be in Latin -- because "by which", "of which", "from which" can't be "split" because they're one word, because Latin is an inflected language. So what? English doesn't work like that.
Why try to put English in a Latin strait-jacket?